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Fill in the blank: In order to install a license, it must first be added to the ______ .

  • A. User Center
  • B. Package repository
  • C. Download Center Web site
  • D. License and Contract repository

Answer: B


You find a suspicious connection from a problematic host. You decide that you want to block everything from that whole network, not just the problematic host. You want to block this for an hour while you investigate further, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base. How do you achieve this?

  • A. Use dbedit to script the addition of a rule directly into the Rule Bases_5_0.fws configuration file.
  • B. Select Block intruder from the Tools menu in SmartView Tracker.
  • C. Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in Smart Monitor.
  • D. Add a temporary rule using SmartDashboard and select hide rule.

Answer: C


Which limitation of CoreXL is overcome by using (mitigated by) Multi-Queue?

  • A. There is no traffic queue to be handled
  • B. Several NICs can use one traffic queue by one CPU
  • C. Each NIC has several traffic queues that are handled by multiple CPU cores
  • D. Each NIC has one traffic queue that is handled by one CPU

Answer: C


Which of the following Automatically Generated Rules NAT rules have the lowest implementation priority?

  • A. Machine Hide NAT
  • B. Address Range Hide NAT
  • C. Network Hide NAT
  • D. Machine Static NAT

Answer: BC

SmartDashboard organizes the automatic NAT rules in this order:
Static NAT rules for Firewall, or node (computer or server) objects
Hide NAT rules for Firewall, or node objects
Static NAT rules for network or address range objects
Hide NAT rules for network or address range objects


Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now is very fast.

  • A. New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install
  • B. Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results
  • C. SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway
  • D. The amount of logs been store is less than the usual in older versions

Answer: B


The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

  • A. Secure Internal Communication (SIC)
  • B. Restart Daemons if they fail
  • C. Transfer messages between Firewall processes
  • D. Pulls application monitoring status

Answer: D


Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive against malicious and unwanted network traffic, focusing on application and server vulnerabilities?

  • A. Anti-Virus
  • B. IPS
  • C. Anti-Spam
  • D. Anti-bot

Answer: B

The IPS Software Blade provides a complete Intrusion Prevention System security solution, providing comprehensive network protection against malicious and unwanted network traffic, including:
Malware attacks
Dos and DDoS attacks
Application and server vulnerabilities
Insider threats
Unwanted application traffic, including IM and P2P


Which set of objects have an Authentication tab?

  • A. Templates, Users
  • B. Users, Networks
  • C. Users, User Group
  • D. Networks, Hosts

Answer: A


Using R80 Smart Console, what does a “pencil icon” in a rule mean?

  • A. I have changed this rule
  • B. Someone else has changed this rule
  • C. This rule is managed by check point’s SOC
  • D. This rule can’t be changed as it’s an implied rule

Answer: A


What is the BEST method to deploy identity Awareness for roaming users?

  • A. Use Office Mode
  • B. Use identity agents
  • C. Share user identities between gateways
  • D. Use captive portal

Answer: A


Provide very wide coverage for all products and protocols, with noticeable performance impact.
156-215.80 dumps exhibit
How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level? Select the BEST answer.

  • A. Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.
  • B. Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.
  • C. The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profil
  • D. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.
  • E. Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.

Answer: B


Sally has a Hot Fix Accumulator (HFA) she wants to install on her Security Gateway which operates with GAiA, but she cannot SCP the HFA to the system. She can SSH into the Security Gateway, but she has never been able to SCP files to it. What would be the most likely reason she cannot do so?

  • A. She needs to edit /etc/SSHd/SSHd_config and add the Standard Mode account.
  • B. She needs to run sysconfig and restart the SSH process.
  • C. She needs to edit /etc/scpusers and add the Standard Mode account.
  • D. She needs to run cpconfig to enable the ability to SCP files.

Answer: C


You are about to test some rule and object changes suggested in an R77 news group. Which backup solution should you use to ensure the easiest restoration of your Security Policy to its previous configuration after testing the changes?

  • A. Manual copies of the directory $FWDIR/conf
  • B. upgrade_export command
  • C. Database Revision Control
  • D. GAiA backup utilities

Answer: C


Fill in the blank: A ____ VPN deployment is used to provide remote users with secure access to internal corporate resources by authenticating the user through an internet browser.

  • A. Clientless remote access
  • B. Clientless direct access
  • C. Client-based remote access
  • D. Direct access

Answer: A

Clientless - Users connect through a web browser and use HTTPS connections. Clientless solutions usually supply access to web-based corporate resources.


Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

  • A. cpconfig
  • B. Management Command Line
  • C. SmartConsole
  • D. SmartUpdate

Answer: D

SmartUpdate GUI is the recommended way of managing licenses. References:


What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status
156-215.80 dumps exhibit
Choose the BEST answer.

  • A. SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway
  • B. There is a blade reporting a problem
  • C. VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction
  • D. Security Gateway s MGNT NIC card is disconnected

Answer: A


In order to modify Security Policies the administrator can use which of the following tools? Select the BEST answer.

  • A. Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.
  • B. SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.
  • C. mgmt_cli or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.
  • D. SmartConsole or mgmt_cli on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.

Answer: D


You work as a security administrator for a large company. CSO of your company has attended a security conference where he has learnt how hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources. He wants to make sure that his company has the right protections in place. Check Point has been selected for the security vendor. Which Check Point products protects BEST against malware and zero-day attacks while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users?

  • A. IPS and Application Control
  • B. IPS, anti-virus and anti-bot
  • C. IPS, anti-virus and e-mail security
  • D. SandBlast

Answer: D

SandBlast Zero-Day Protection
Hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources. Zero-day exploit protection from Check Point provides a deeper level of inspection so you can prevent more malware and zero-day attacks, while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users.


In R80, Unified Policy is a combination of

  • A. Access control policy, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and endpoint policy.
  • B. Access control policy, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and Threat Prevention Policy.
  • C. Firewall policy, address Translation and application and URL filtering, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and Threat Prevention Policy.
  • D. Access control policy, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and VPN policy.

Answer: D

D is the best answer given the choices. Unified Policy
In R80 the Access Control policy unifies the policies of these pre-R80 Software Blades:
Firewall and VPN
Application Control and URL Filtering
Identity Awareness
Data Awareness
Mobile Access
Security Zones


What are types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of R80.10 code?

  • A. Security Gateway API, Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API
  • B. Management API, Threat Prevention API, Identity Awareness Web Services API and OPSEC SDK API
  • C. OSE API, OPSEC SDK API, Threat Prevention API and Policy Editor API
  • D. CPMI API, Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API

Answer: B


The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to delect and block malware.

  • A. Next Generation Threat Prevention
  • B. Next Generation Threat Emulation
  • C. Next Generation Threat Extraction
  • D. Next Generation Firewall

Answer: B


Which of the following is NOT defined by an Access Role object?

  • A. Source Network
  • B. Source Machine
  • C. Source User
  • D. Source Server

Answer: D


Phase 1 of the two-phase negotiation process conducted by IKE operates in a_____ mode.

  • A. Main
  • B. Authentication
  • C. Quick
  • D. High Alert

Answer: A


John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

  • A. secondary Smartcenter
  • B. active Smartcenter
  • C. connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA
  • D. primary Smartcenter

Answer: B


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