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Fill in the blanks: A _____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a _____ license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

  • A. Format; corporate
  • B. Local; formal
  • C. Local; central
  • D. Central; local

Answer: D


Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform. Bob logs in on the WebUI and then Joe logs in through CLI. Choose what BEST describes the following scenario, where Bob and Joe are both logged in:

  • A. When Joe logs in, Bob will be log out automatically.
  • B. Since they both are log in on different interfaces, they both will be able to make changes.
  • C. If Joe tries to make changes, he won't, database will be locked.
  • D. Bob will be prompt that Joe logged in.

Answer: C


You have two rules, ten users, and two user groups in a Security Policy. You create database version 1 for this configuration. You then delete two existing users and add a new user group. You modify one rule and add two new rules to the Rule Base. You save the Security Policy and create database version 2. After a while, you decide to roll back to version 1 to use the Rule Base, but you want to keep your user database. How can you do this?

  • A. Run fwm dbexport -1 filenam
  • B. Restore the databas
  • C. Then, run fwm dbimport -1 filename to import the users.
  • D. Run fwm_dbexport to export the user databas
  • E. Select restore the entire database in the Database Revision scree
  • F. Then, run fwm_dbimport.
  • G. Restore the entire database, except the user database, and then create the new user and user group.
  • H. Restore the entire database, except the user database.

Answer: D


Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?

  • A. Firewall
  • B. Application Control
  • C. Anti-spam and Email Security
  • D. Antivirus

Answer: D

The enhanced Check Point Antivirus Software Blade uses real-time virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud™, the first collaborative network to fight cybercrime, to detect and block malware at the gateway before users are affected.


Which command shows the installed licenses?

  • A. cplic print
  • B. print cplic
  • C. fwlic print
  • D. show licenses

Answer: A


Which one of the following is TRUE?

  • A. Ordered policy is a sub-policy within another policy
  • B. One policy can be either inline or ordered, but not both
  • C. Inline layer can be defined as a rule action
  • D. Pre-R80 Gateways do not support ordered layers

Answer: C


Which utility shows the security gateway general system information statistics like operating system information and resource usage, and individual software blade statistics of VPN, Identity Awareness and DLP?

  • A. cpconfig
  • B. fw ctl pstat
  • C. cpview
  • D. fw ctl multik stat

Answer: C

CPView Utility is a text based built-in utility that can be run ('cpview' command) on Security Gateway / Security Management Server / Multi-Domain Security Management Server. CPView Utility shows statistical data that contain both general system information (CPU, Memory, Disk space) and information for different Software Blades (only on Security Gateway). The data is continuously updated in easy to access views.


What is Consolidation Policy?

  • A. The collective name of the Security Policy, Address Translation, and IPS Policies.
  • B. The specific Policy written in SmartDashboard to configure which log data is stored in the SmartReporter database.
  • C. The collective name of the logs generated by SmartReporter.
  • D. A global Policy used to share a common enforcement policy for multiple Security Gateways.

Answer: B


Fill in the blanks: A security Policy is created in ______, stored in the ______, and Distributed to the various ______.

  • A. Rule base, Security Management Server, Security Gateways
  • B. SmartConsole, Security Gateway, Security Management Servers
  • C. SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateways
  • D. The Check Point database, SmartConsole, Security Gateways

Answer: C


Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?

  • A. Basic – Provides reliable protection on a range of non-HTTP protocols for servers, with minimal impact on network performance
  • B. Optimized – Provides excellent protection for common network products and protocols against recent or popular attacks
  • C. Strict – Provides a wide coverage for all products and protocols, with impact on network performance
  • D. Recommended – Provides all protection for all common network products and servers, with impact on network performance

Answer: D


Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

  • A. The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rule
  • B. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.
  • C. Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.
  • D. Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.
  • E. Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rule
  • F. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

Answer: D


Fill in the blank: RADIUS Accounting gets _____ data from requests generated by the accounting client

  • A. Destination
  • B. Identity
  • C. Payload
  • D. Location

Answer: B

How RADIUS Accounting Works with Identity Awareness
RADIUS Accounting gets identity data from RADIUS Accounting Requests generated by the RADIUS accounting client.


You are unable to login to SmartDashboard. You log into the management server and run #cpwd_admin list with the following output:
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What reason could possibly BEST explain why you are unable to connect to SmartDashboard?

  • A. CDP is down
  • B. SVR is down
  • C. FWM is down
  • D. CPSM is down

Answer: C

The correct answer would be FWM (is the process making available communication between SmartConsole applications and Security Management Server.). STATE is T (Terminate = Down)
SmartDashboard fails to connect to the Security Management server.
Verify if the FWM process is running. To do this, run the command:
[Expert@HostName:0]# ps -aux | grep fwm
If the FWM process is not running, then try force-starting the process with the following command: [Expert@HostName:0]# cpwd_admin start -name FWM -path "$FWDIR/bin/fwm" -command "fwm" [Expert@HostName:0]# ps -aux | grep fwm
[Expert@HostName:0]# cpwd_admin start -name FWM -path "$FWDIR/bin/fwm" -command "fwm"


Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?

  • A. Always delivers a file to user
  • B. Works on all MS Office, Executables, and PDF files
  • C. Can take up to 3 minutes to complete
  • D. Delivers file only if no threats found

Answer: B


Which repositories are installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate?

  • A. License and Update
  • B. Package Repository and Licenses
  • C. Update and License and Contract
  • D. License and Contract and Package Repository

Answer: D


What is the potential downside or drawback to choosing the Standalone deployment option instead of the Distributed deployment option?

  • A. degrades performance as the Security Policy grows in size
  • B. requires additional Check Point appliances
  • C. requires additional software subscription
  • D. increases cost

Answer: A


What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?

  • A. Endpoint Security Client
  • B. Full Agent
  • C. Light Agent
  • D. System Agent

Answer: B


Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

  • A. SmartView Monitor
  • B. SmartEvent
  • C. SmartUpdate
  • D. SmartDashboard

Answer: B

SmartEvent correlates logs from all Check Point enforcement points, including end-points, to identify suspicious activity from the clutter. Rapid data analysis and custom event logs immediately alert administrators to anomalous behavior such as someone attempting to use the same credential in multiple geographies simultaneously.


Review the rules. Assume domain UDP is enabled in the implied rules.
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What happens when a user from the internal network tries to browse to the internet using HTTP? The user:

  • A. can connect to the Internet successfully after being authenticated.
  • B. is prompted three times before connecting to the Internet successfully.
  • C. can go to the Internet after Telnetting to the client authentication daemon port 259.
  • D. can go to the Internet, without being prompted for authentication.

Answer: D


On the following graphic, you will find layers of policies.
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What is a precedence of traffic inspection for the defined polices?

  • A. A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in the networks policy layer and then if implicit Drop Rule drops the packet, it comes next to IPS layer and then after accepting the packet it passes to Threat Prevention layer.
  • B. A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in the networks policy layer and then if there is any rule which accepts the packet, it comes next to IPS layer and then after accepting the packet it passes to Threat Prevention layer
  • C. A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in the networks policy layer and then if there is any rule which accepts the packet, it comes next to Threat Prevention layer and then after accepting the packet it passes to IPS layer.
  • D. A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in IPS policy layer and then it comes next to the Network policy layer and then after accepting the packet it passes to Threat Prevention layer.

Answer: B

To simplify Policy management, R80 organizes the policy into Policy Layers. A layer is a set of rules, or a Rule Base.
For example, when you upgrade to R80 from earlier versions:
Gateways that have the Firewall and the Application Control Software Blades enabled will have their Access Control Policy split into two ordered layers: Network and Applications.
When the gateway matches a rule in a layer, it starts to evaluate the rules in the next layer.
Gateways that have the IPS and Threat Emulation Software Blades enabled will have their Threat Prevention policies split into two parallel layers: IPS and Threat Prevention.
All layers are evaluated in parallel
When the gateway matches a rule in a layer, it starts to evaluate the rules in the next layer.
All layers are evaluated in parallel


Fill in the blanks: A High Availability deployment is referred to as a ____ cluster and a Load Sharing deployment is referred to as a _____ cluster.

  • A. Standby/standby; active/active
  • B. Active/active; standby/standby
  • C. Active/active; active/standby;
  • D. Active/standby; active/active

Answer: D

In a High Availability cluster, only one member is active (Active/Standby operation).
ClusterXL Load Sharing distributes traffic within a cluster so that the total throughput of multiple members is increased. In Load Sharing configurations, all functioning members in the cluster are active, and handle network traffic (Active/Active operation).


The CDT utility supports which of the following?

  • A. Major version upgrades to R77.30
  • B. Only Jumbo HFA’s and hotfixes
  • C. Only major version upgrades to R80.10
  • D. All upgrades

Answer: D


Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers?

  • A. You achieve a faster access time by placing LDAP servers containing the database at remote sites
  • B. Information on a user is hidden, yet distributed across several servers
  • C. You achieve compartmentalization by allowing a large number of users to be distributed across several servers
  • D. You gain High Availability by replicating the same information on several servers

Answer: B


Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

  • A. Add rba user <User Name> roles <List>
  • B. Add rba user <User Name>
  • C. Add user <User Name> roles <List>
  • D. Add user <User Name>

Answer: A

Configuring Roles - CLI (rba)
156-215.80 dumps exhibit


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